But it isn't, as was discussed on the first page of this thread. Unless, of course, you want hard proof that this was never used in India. But that's asking to prove a negative again, which is still logically impossible.
You can't just keep bringing up hypotheticals to push the discussion back. There is simply no reason to lend the theory the slightest bit of credence.
Why making a storm in a cup of water? Proofs belong to the domain of math and logic and let us leave them there, the OP only asks for opinions and info on the subject which have been kindly provided so far but don't seem conclusive to substantiate any theory.