Portuguese Goa in the 16th century?

Joined Nov 2013
919 Posts | 52+
Texas
no

No, but I will respond to your thread to boost your self esteem.

I've always been fascistnated by the success of 16th century Spain and Portugal. They showed how far western arms had advanced (IMO medieval western armies were logistically flawed and overrated). I am not sure to what extent this had to do with fighting muslims; and to what extent western dominance was an effect and not a cause of the age of exploration.

Portugal conquered Goa in 1510 with the help of a pirate and the Vjjjjsdfds kingdom of southern India. But, I always wondered what the secret of Portuguese arms was that they could conquer Malacca and Goa and even negotiate a lease on Macau.

They're actually more impressive than the Spanish conquistadors because those guys were fighting some distinctly backwards places.
 
Joined Nov 2010
14,406 Posts | 4,143+
Cornwall
Last edited:
No, but I will respond to your thread to boost your self esteem.

I've always been fascistnated by the success of 16th century Spain and Portugal. They showed how far western arms had advanced (IMO medieval western armies were logistically flawed and overrated). I am not sure to what extent this had to do with fighting muslims; and to what extent western dominance was an effect and not a cause of the age of exploration.

Portugal conquered Goa in 1510 with the help of a pirate and the Vjjjjsdfds kingdom of southern India. But, I always wondered what the secret of Portuguese arms was that they could conquer Malacca and Goa and even negotiate a lease on Macau.

They're actually more impressive than the Spanish conquistadors because those guys were fighting some distinctly backwards places.

Speaking generally the factors which made Spain and Portugal (count as one as it was Castilla, Leon, Navarra, Aragon/Catalonia and Portugal until the Habsburgs appeared) suitable for such endeavors do include as you say, fighting muslims.

In effect the Peninsula had been on a 'frontier' footing for nearly 800 years or so, both with Muslim Kingdoms and other Christian kingdoms, and overseas conquest became just an extension for people raised on war and conquest. In the Americas indians were called 'moros' by the early conquistadors ( is a word for muslim or Moroccan in Spain but used to mean 'heathen'). The whole christian feudal system had been built around fighting and war.

Another factor was that second sons didn't inherit anything at all, so had to go and find fame and fortune, and the removal of the threat of Granada, combined with the large number of 'unemployed' 2nd-class noblemen, or Hidalgos, was a ready-made source of conquerors. The War of the Communities in the early 16th century, which the lesser nobles lost, was another factor which made them persona non grata, broke and keen to leave the Peninsula.

This combined with a bit of individual brilliance from both Spain and Portugal led to these successful colonisations. Portugal was of course free from muslim distractions much earlier than the rest of 'Spain', allowing them to focus outwards somewhat earlier
 
Joined Aug 2014
5,549 Posts | 582+
India
Last edited:
Vjjjjsdfds kingdom of southern India.

It was Vijayanagara Empire.

Portuguese did [ame=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goa_Inquisition]Goa Inquisition - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia[/ame]


You can also read articles written by V. Sundaram on Goa Inquisition on online.
 
Joined Oct 2012
3,562 Posts | 807+
Z
No, but I will respond to your thread to boost your self esteem.

I've always been fascistnated by the success of 16th century Spain and Portugal. They showed how far western arms had advanced (IMO medieval western armies were logistically flawed and overrated). I am not sure to what extent this had to do with fighting muslims; and to what extent western dominance was an effect and not a cause of the age of exploration.

Portugal conquered Goa in 1510 with the help of a pirate and the Vjjjjsdfds kingdom of southern India. But, I always wondered what the secret of Portuguese arms was that they could conquer Malacca and Goa and even negotiate a lease on Macau.

They're actually more impressive than the Spanish conquistadors because those guys were fighting some distinctly backwards places.

The real advantage of the Portuguese was in their navy, not in their arms. The Portuguese had no great superiority in arms during the 16th century, neither compared to their European counterparts nor to many non-European powers. The Deccan region of South India produced some of the best matchlocks and cannons in the world according to the Portuguese themselves, and Afonso de Albuquerque sent copies of Deccani matchlocks back home to Portugal in 1513. These were probably reverse-engineered and their technology incorporated into Portuguese arsenals. We know that in Goa itself, at least, the "Portuguese" guns that were produced at the local arsenal should be better referred to as "Deccano-Portuguese" guns.


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Joined Feb 2011
1,930 Posts | 169+
The Deccan region of South India produced some of the best matchlocks and cannons in the world according to the Portuguese themselves, and Afonso de Albuquerque sent copies of Deccani matchlocks back home to Portugal in 1513.

I would not overrate this episode. The Sultanate of Delhi, the largest military power on the subcontinent, was easily overwhelmed by Babur's firepower at Panipat which was modest compared to what any central or western European army could muster at the time.

Moreover, Manueline Portugal is considered by modern military historians to be only a second tier producer of arms, dependent on arms and technology transfer from Germany and other hubs of production.

After da Gama's landfall, we are basically talking about a situation where a second-class European military power by any means wiped the floor with Asian's finest maritime powers in most encounters.
 
Joined Oct 2012
3,562 Posts | 807+
Z
I would not overrate this episode. The Sultanate of Delhi, the largest military power on the subcontinent, was easily overwhelmed by Babur's firepower at Panipat which was modest compared to what any central or western European army could muster at the time.

You appear to be ignorant of basic geography and history. I was talking specifically about the Deccan region and not the Indian subcontinent as a whole. The term "Deccan" refers to a landmass south of the Vindhya mountains, north of the Mysore plateau, and in between the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal; this landmass overlaps with the northernmost parts of what is called "South India". The Delhi Sultanate had no bearing on Deccani political, military, or technological history since the mid-14th century, and by the early 16th century was technologically behind every major power in the Deccan. It was also by no means the "largest military power" on the subcontinent at the time of the First Battle of Panipat; even Babur himself states in his memoirs that Vijayanagar in South India was the most powerful Indian state.
 
Joined Jun 2014
4,516 Posts | 85+
India
Last edited:
I would not overrate this episode. The Sultanate of Delhi, the largest military power on the subcontinent, was easily overwhelmed by Babur's firepower at Panipat which was modest compared to what any central or western European army could muster at the time.

Moreover, Manueline Portugal is considered by modern military historians to be only a second tier producer of arms, dependent on arms and technology transfer from Germany and other hubs of production.

After da Gama's landfall, we are basically talking about a situation where a second-class European military power by any means wiped the floor with Asian's finest maritime powers in most encounters.


Sultanate of Delhi was ruled by Lodis who had no idea as to what guns and firepower were, almost similar like Safavids in battle of Chaldiran. Lodis were weak and twice defeated by Rana Sanga. Babur himself regards Rana Sanga as more dangerous adversary as do his soldiers and other Turkic Officers( some even advised to return when a contingent of 1500 horsemen were cut to pieces by Rajputs). Even then, Rana had no idea on guns and was crushed by Babur.

I do not deny that Indian subcontinent was behind both East Asia and Europe in firepower, though atleast in South India, guns were used much earlier than in Persia and Mamluk kingdom.
 
Joined Jun 2014
4,516 Posts | 85+
India
I think that Deccanis used their age old expertise in metalworks to good effect while manufacturing guns. Cooper in his book on Marathas quotes how even Arthur Wellesley wrote in early 1800s that some bronze guns of Marathas were finest he had ever seen in his life.
 
Joined Feb 2011
1,930 Posts | 169+
I do not deny that Indian subcontinent was behind both East Asia and Europe in firepower, though atleast in South India, guns were used much earlier than in Persia and Mamluk kingdom.

This is an ancillary question, but I am not sure if this is true. Firm evidence of the presence of cannon and firearms on the Indian subcontinent only emerges in the midst of the 15th century.

In any case, if the rd'd's identification with cannon, which seems so plausible, is accepted, then it would not be wrong to assume that cannon was already in use in India as early as A.D. 1442-43.

Source: Early Use of Cannon and Musket in India: A.D. 1442-1526, p. 163
 
Joined Oct 2012
3,562 Posts | 807+
Z
Small wonder since he had defeated himself the most powerful Indian state by this time.

Spare us your vast wisdom. He wrote those lines while explicitly all comparing all kingdoms of the Indian subcontinent, including the former Delhi Sultanate (before he destroyed it). Even the Kingdom of Mewar was more powerful than Delhi, as also indicated by the same account.

The Delhi Sultanate was not the "most powerful state in the Indian subcontinent" since the 14th century.
 
Joined Feb 2011
1,930 Posts | 169+
Spare us your vast wisdom. He wrote those lines while explicitly all comparing all kingdoms of the Indian subcontinent, including the former Delhi Sultanate (before he destroyed it).

Could you be so kind to cite the lines. Babur wrote his memoirs AFTER his conquest of the Delhi Sultanate, in his last years.
 
Joined Feb 2011
1,930 Posts | 169+
This is an ancillary question, but I am not sure if this is true. Firm evidence of the presence of cannon and firearms on the Indian subcontinent only emerges in the midst of the 15th century.

Ajanbahu, you seem to be right about the temporal order. Guns were later introduced in Persia than in India:

The comparison with Iranian capabilities is instructive. In their struggle with Safavid Iran, Ottoman forces initially held a distinct technological advantage. At the battle of Chaldiran in 1514 Ottoman troops armed with firearms and artillery crushed a Safavid force that lacked guns. In 1528 the Iranians were victorious over the Ozbegs because of their artillery, which they obtained from the Portuguese.

Source: Rethinking the Ottoman “Decline”: Military Technology Diffusion in the Ottoman Empire, Fifteenth to Eighteenth Centuries, p. 182
 
Joined Jun 2013
1,445 Posts | 18+
Mundo Nuevo
I would not overrate this episode. The Sultanate of Delhi, the largest military power on the subcontinent, was easily overwhelmed by Babur's firepower at Panipat which was modest compared to what any central or western European army could muster at the time.

Moreover, Manueline Portugal is considered by modern military historians to be only a second tier producer of arms, dependent on arms and technology transfer from Germany and other hubs of production.

After da Gama's landfall, we are basically talking about a situation where a second-class European military power by any means wiped the floor with Asian's finest maritime powers in most encounters.

The Portuguese "wiped the floor" by getting utterly crushed and massacred by Ming China. They surely wiped themselves off the floor.

[ame=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Tunmen]Battle of Tunmen - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia[/ame]

[ame=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Xicaowan]Battle of Xicaowan - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia[/ame]

Ningbo massacre (1542) - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

[ame=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ningpo_massacre]Ningpo massacre - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia[/ame]

Its hilarious how you described a bunch of pirates, rapists, slave traders and thieves as "traders".

A more meaningful assessment of the European military capabilities can be derived from the battles around Malacca, a Ming Chinese vassal which the Portuguese captured and turned into their SE Asian stronghold in 1511. The Ming retaliated with savage brutality against Portuguese traders in mainland China, but could not do anything against the Portuguese pushing them out of maritime SE Asia and establishing themselves at the strategic Straits of Malacca. The Portuguese went on to beat back numerous attacks by Aceh and other powers despite being grossly outnumbered each time.

Pound by pound the European forces proved to be more powerful right from Vasco da Gama, their main problem was a lack of manpower. In addition, the Portuguese seemed to have a policy of deploying their smaller ships east of Malacca, while their larger vessels were reserved for the more important trade with India and the Spice Islands.

I didn't know it was a traders profession to ...., kidnap, steal, loot, and murder. Multiple European accounts say that the Portuguese "traders" deserved what they got. Raping, kidnapping, murdering, and looting tends to invite "savage brutality" in retaliation.

According to even 19th century western writers, who had no idea about "political correctness" or "white guilt", the Portuguese under Albuquerque behaved like cruel greedy pirates who could only prey and commit atrocities, murder and tortures on weaker peoples but when they were met with more powerful opponents (like China) they were forced to display servility (after being beaten back) and offer gestures of friendship.

tons of references were provided here including from the 19th century.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ningbo_massacre_(1542)

https://books.google.com/books?id=_vvOAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA324#v=onepage&q&f=false

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ningpo_massacre

Multiple other Portuguese pirate bases were wiped out by China all along China's southern coastal provinces.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quanzhou#Massacre_of_Portuguese_community

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Malayan–Portuguese_war#Chinese_Involvement

In the 17th century, a group of desert dwelling Bedouin Arab Ibadi nomads from Oman, who never operated a ship in their life before, founded the Ya'ribah Imamate, expelled the Portuguese from Muscat, inflicted multiple humiliating naval defeats on the Portuguese as far as India, and chased the Portuguese to East Africa and expelled the Portuguese from the entire Swahili coast from Kenya to Tanzania after besieging the Portuguese forts one by one.

A group of Arab Bedouin nomads with zero maritime traditions, single handedly manhandled Portugal at both maritime and siege warfare.

But actually that is not a suprise. Arab Bedouin nomads have been man handleling Iberians ever since their conquest in 711 of Spain and Portugal.
 
Joined Dec 2009
7,316 Posts | 331+
The real advantage of the Portuguese was in their navy, not in their arms. The Portuguese had no great superiority in arms during the 16th century, neither compared to their European counterparts nor to many non-European powers. The Deccan region of South India produced some of the best matchlocks and cannons in the world according to the Portuguese themselves, and Afonso de Albuquerque sent copies of Deccani matchlocks back home to Portugal in 1513. These were probably reverse-engineered and their technology incorporated into Portuguese arsenals. We know that in Goa itself, at least, the "Portuguese" guns that were produced at the local arsenal should be better referred to as "Deccano-Portuguese" guns.

I agree the weapons technologically of the Porteguese significantly more advanced, not enough to give them any kind of decissive edge in battle, except maybe for ship technologically, and even then, any advantage the Prteguese might have had could be overcome by numbers, better leadership, etc. overcome numbers

However, while the guns of India were of excellent quality, but didn't dispaly any particular technological innovation. For example, while India was prefecting matchlocks, Europeans were going on to develop wheel locks and flint locks. While Asians were started making huge cannon after the Europeans, Europeans had already discovered that smaller medium sized cannons were a better bet, being more versatile and easier to transport, and had switched to somewhat smaller guns.

That is pretty much the pattern we see - India craftsmans made excellent product, but their innovation was less. Indians may have made improvements on existing designs, but Europeans came up with major new desgins. (Tipu's rockets weren't really a major innovation, they didn't signicantly change warfare like the matchlock and flint locks did. In a 500 year period ). India built excellent ships for the British, to European designs, but didn't come up with their own major improvements, nothing to match the fast clipper ships, or copper plating hulls, etc.
 
Joined Feb 2011
1,930 Posts | 169+

Mighty Ming who massacred a few traders?

The "battle" of Tunmen is so insignificant an enounter that it only passed the relevance criteria in the permissive English Wikipedia where it was anyway likely written up by Chinese nationalists to bolster their bruised pride.
 
Joined Oct 2012
3,562 Posts | 807+
Z
Could you be so kind to cite the lines. Babur wrote his memoirs AFTER his conquest of the Delhi Sultanate, in his last years.

Why do you even bother discussing things you have no clue about? Babur wrote his memoirs in the past tense, and takes the reader through his conquests. In Section B of his chapter "Description of Hindustan" (pp.481-84 in the version edited by Annette Susannah Beveridge), he describes the major powers of India as they existed at the time of his invasion of India. Babur indicates that there were five Muslim powers (Delhi, Gujarat, Bahmanis, Bengal, Malwa) and two Hindu powers (Vijayanagar and Mewar). He explicitly states that Vijayanagar was the strongest:

X1UHMHW.jpg


Link: https://books.google.com/books?id=A...g#v=onepage&q="the Raja of Bijanagar"&f=false


What is YOUR basis for asserting that the Sultanate of Delhi in the early 16th century was "the most powerful state in the Indian Subcontinent"?
 
Joined Feb 2011
1,930 Posts | 169+
He explicitly states that Vijayanagar was the strongest.

Where? Please cite the primary source, not a secondary one. How does the modern author know that Babur referred to entire India and not just the Hindu-ruled states as "Hindustan"? Why should he subsume the Delhi Sultanate that had been for centuries a Muslim kingdom under "Hindustan"? This does not match well with the aristocratism of medieval rulers who defined the ethnicity of their enemies by the ethnicity of the elite and the army, and not the rightless peasant masses.


What is YOUR basis for asserting that the Sultanate of Delhi in the early 16th century was "the most powerful state in the Indian Subcontinent"?

It is not rocket science. The Delhi sultanate controlled the Ganges plain which, apart from the politically fragmented Indus valley, has always been the most populous and fertile region, and thus offered the largest tax base, and had been traditionally the hub of the largest Indian empires for this reason.
 

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