Joined Nov 2007
7,628 Posts | 9+
Alba
Recently there have been a couple of films based on the Rosemary Sutcliffe book “Eagle of the Ninth”. Both the films and the book are based on a false premise in that they refer to Picts. While I don't have much of a quarrel with the application of poetic licence, this gives a false impression.
Pytheas, circa 300BC, referred to the inhabitants of what is now Great Britain as Pretani and the archipeligo as the Pretanic Isles. It's been argued that Pretani is possibly a Celtic word translating as “those who paint themselves”, but it's never been explained why Pytheas used a Celtic word (that's if it is).
The term “Pict” was never used by the early Roman chroniclers, Tacitus refers to the Caledonians as “Britons”. It's only in 297CE that the term “Pict” is first used (by Emenius).
So who were the Picts? Some have suggested that they were a Celtic people, others have suggested they were a non-Celtic people, yet it seems they spoke some form of a Brythonnic language. There is an on-going argument about the Pictish language, but I'm just going to note that it's generally accepted that the Goidelic languages arrived before the Brythonnic ones, so I'm unsure about this as I don't know how the Pictish language became an isolate.
On the origins of this enigmatic people, my suggestion is that the Picts were the descendants of the original Bronze Age inhabitants.
Incidentally, forget anything you've ever heard about a “Pictish extermination” or genocide. The Picts didn't disappear, they weren't exterminated. They were assimilated as were the Gaels of the Isles and Argyll and the Welsh of Strathclyde. The result is the present-day indigenous population of Scotland.
Thoughts?
Pytheas, circa 300BC, referred to the inhabitants of what is now Great Britain as Pretani and the archipeligo as the Pretanic Isles. It's been argued that Pretani is possibly a Celtic word translating as “those who paint themselves”, but it's never been explained why Pytheas used a Celtic word (that's if it is).
The term “Pict” was never used by the early Roman chroniclers, Tacitus refers to the Caledonians as “Britons”. It's only in 297CE that the term “Pict” is first used (by Emenius).
So who were the Picts? Some have suggested that they were a Celtic people, others have suggested they were a non-Celtic people, yet it seems they spoke some form of a Brythonnic language. There is an on-going argument about the Pictish language, but I'm just going to note that it's generally accepted that the Goidelic languages arrived before the Brythonnic ones, so I'm unsure about this as I don't know how the Pictish language became an isolate.
On the origins of this enigmatic people, my suggestion is that the Picts were the descendants of the original Bronze Age inhabitants.
Incidentally, forget anything you've ever heard about a “Pictish extermination” or genocide. The Picts didn't disappear, they weren't exterminated. They were assimilated as were the Gaels of the Isles and Argyll and the Welsh of Strathclyde. The result is the present-day indigenous population of Scotland.
Thoughts?