English law or Roman law: which is better?

Joined Dec 2011
1,209 Posts | 0+
UK
English law and Roman law are the two main legal systems in the modern Western world, so which is better?

English law, in use in all English speaking countries and many others too, is fundamentally based on case law. Judges and juries make law based on precedent, independent of a legislature.

Roman law is wholly dependent on legislation, with no common law element. It very rarely bothers with juries, which are fundamental to English law.

The basic difference is that English common law is formed from the bottom up, but Roman civil law is formed from the top down. That's why the latter needs some dictator like Napoleon to come along every so often and reform it. English common law evolves naturally.
 
Joined Nov 2010
1,982 Posts | 607+
Bordeaux
As usual, your question is rethorical, you've answered it already and it is only a way to give yourself an opportunity to placard your views as the absolute truth. Pointless.



 
Joined Dec 2010
6,889 Posts | 185+
Oregon coastal mountains
If you disagree, you're supposed to state your position, I'm guessing.
 
Joined Nov 2010
1,982 Posts | 607+
Bordeaux
If you disagree, you're supposed to state your position, I'm guessing.

Disagreeing is pointless, and argumenting disagreement is even more pointless when Nyneve's posts involve Britain or anything British.
I was only anticipating the outcome, based on experience...
Although of course I do agree with you, on principle and in general circomstances.
 
Joined Dec 2011
1,209 Posts | 0+
UK
Disagreeing is pointless, and argumenting disagreement is even more pointless when Nyneve's posts involve Britain or anything British.
I was only anticipating the outcome, based on experience...
Although I do agree with you, on principle and in general circomstances.

This is a discussion forum, is it not? If you wish to defend Roman civil law, please go ahead.
 
Joined Dec 2010
6,889 Posts | 185+
Oregon coastal mountains
Oh. :lol: I think th Napolean comment is irrelevent of course, but the jury system has it's own significant problems. I think the Roman system, as practiced by the French, entails detailed investigation by judges of a crime. Rather than a prosecutor laying out his case to a jury, the investigator can interrogate family, business partners, the accused etc. to come to a legally supported finding. There is also a defense that is presented to the judge for his fact finding. It seems to rely on expert rather than peer judgement.
 
Joined Dec 2011
1,209 Posts | 0+
UK
Oh. :lol: I think th Napolean comment is irrelevent of course, but the jury system has it's own significant problems. I think the Roman system, as practiced by the French, entails detailed investigation by judges of a crime. Rather than a prosecutor laying out his case to a jury, the investigator can interrogate family, business partners, the accuses etc. to come to a legally supported finding. There is also a defense that is presented to the judge for his fact finding.

The judge has the power to do that in the English system too.
 
Joined Nov 2010
4,571 Posts | 770+
Western Eurasia
English law and Roman law are the two main legal systems in the modern Western world, so which is better?

English law, in use in all English speaking countries and many others too, is fundamentally based on case law. Judges and juries make law based on precedent, independent of a legislature.

Roman law is wholly dependent on legislation, with no common law element. It very rarely bothers with juries, which are fundamental to English law.

The differences are not as big as some try to portray, there are more and more statute laws in Anglo-saxon system and the judge made law also influence more the contintental legal systems than people like to admit (European Court, Constitutional court and other higher national courts decisions, opinions..). Jury is not fundamental in either system even in common law countries their use is more and more limited to a few cases.

That's why the latter needs some dictator like Napoleon to come along every so often and reform it.
no it only needs majority of votes in parliament to reform them.

Where the differences are bigger are more in the legal profession, as being a judge in an anglo saxon country is the top of the legal career (also my impression it is more political, at least in the US). in continental systems after finishing the uni. in 3-4 years you can become a judge. And the judge is more passive in an anglo-saxon court than in continental.

I for one prefer the continental system, it gives more legal certainity.
 
Joined Feb 2010
629 Posts | 0+
Cambridgeshire, UK
The English system does have the intrinsic flaw of 2 highly educated men/women trying to convince 12 random members of the public, who are in some cases rather 'slow'. Also the judge can direct the jury how to vote, which I never got, as they can still decide against the judge. Furthermore, legal precedents also baffle me, why look at what happened last time to decide the penalty? Wouldn't it be better to judge each case on its own merits/flaws?
 
Joined Oct 2011
40,550 Posts | 7,631+
Italy, Lago Maggiore
Italian governments are reforming Italian Justice System, anyway it's still "Roman based".

To describe to you how things work here, imagine that the prosecutor is not a lawyer, but a judge ["pubblico mininstero": public minister] and this judge can become a judging judge during a common career.

Then, the law wins on the jury and since it's the judge to apply it, the judge [or the judges in case of courts] usually win on the jury [in chamber of council it can happen that the jury persuades the judge, but I guess it's rare].

Moreover the jurisprudence of the highest courts has got a fundamental importance [local courts tend to follow the orientation of the main ones in the interpretation of the law to avoid troubles in case of appeal].
 
Joined May 2011
2,704 Posts | 1+
Furthermore, legal precedents also baffle me, why look at what happened last time to decide the penalty? Wouldn't it be better to judge each case on its own merits/flaws?
The judges are not bound to follow blindly the principle of binding precedent.
 

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